Thanks for presenting this article on a topic related to covered calls.
Steve's question, as well as the oft repeated discussions on the JustCoveredCalls Yahoo Group regarding whether to (1) close or (2) roll; short puts (in the case of cash-secured puts [CSP]) or short calls (in the case of covered calls [CC]) leads me to conjecture that there is an insignificant difference concerning the "What to do?" question when one compares the comparable decision facing either the CC or the CSP writers.
2) In a related (albeit different) line of inquiry, it seems to me that individual investors who are put writers might be slightly more conservatively oriented in that they tend to sell out-of-the-money strikes whereas covered calls investors are more likely to be somewhat more aggressive in that they seem to have a greater tendency to sell out-of-the-money calls.
Do you have any thoughts on this question?
Are you aware of any academic research in this regard?
Best Regards,
Jeff
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1) Although I've never seen a discussion on this question, it's makes for an excellent blog post:
Let's assume that the reader of this post already understands that covered calls and CSP positions are equivalent (if you are not certain this is true, here's evidence). That means they offer essentially identical profit and loss profiles.
Do the covered call writer and cash secured put (CSP) seller face essentially identical decisions?
Let's assume the trader is short RGTO Jun 40's. The covered all writer owns the shares and wrote Jun 40 calls. The CSP trader sold RGTO Jun 40 puts.
a) When the stock is near 40 as expiration nears, each is faced with a similar decision:
Do you exit the trade, eliminate all risk (associated with significant negative gamma)? Is this decision affected by whether the position is profitable?
Do you hold because theta is relatively large with a decent daily reward?
These decisions are identical. The put and call options have the same gamma, vega, and theta. The positions have identical risk and the traders face identical decisions, even though they don't necessarily recognize that fact.
i) If the traders decide to exit, they make the same decision. There's not more to say about that choice.
ii) When the CC writer rolls the position to the same strike in July, he/she is selling the call time spread. The new position is the RGTO Jul 40 covered call. That position is equivalent to being short the RGTO Jul 40 P.
When the CSP seller decides to roll the position to the next month, that trader also gets short the Jul 40P.
Thus, each makes the identical play: changing the Jun position to Jul and each has a position equivalent to the other.
iii) This is a constant. Regardless of the strike price chosen - as long as each trader sells a RGTO option with the same strike and expiration, each makes an equivalent trade when rolling and each owns an equivalent position.
b) If the stock is not near 40, then either the call or put is relatively DITM and the other is FOTM.
i) If the stock is > 40, then the CC writer is assigned an exercise notice, has no residual position and earns the maximum possible profit for that trade. The CSP writer sees the short put expire worthless. This trader also has no residual position and earns the maximum.
ii) If the stock is well below 40, each has a losing situation - but it's the equivalent. Each has lost an equal amount of money. One reasonable action is for the call writer to sell the Jul 35 call - either after the Jun option expires worthless, or prior to expiration. Why prior? To collect extra cash NOW, and not gambling on the stock price change between NOW and expiration.
It's also common for the CSP seller to 'roll down' by covering the Jun 40P and selling the Jul35P. If that's the decision, then once again each has made the equivalent trade.
Bottom line: Jeff, I agree with your premise: "there is an insignificant
difference concerning the 'What to do?' question."
***
2) I also believe it's true that most option sellers feel safer when writing OTM options. That would leave the CC writer selling options with a higher strike price (calls) and the CSP writer selling lower strike price puts.
Why does this happen? In my opinion, it's a result of covered call writers not quite 'getting' the idea behind their strategy. The need to have a chance to earn a profit on a rally (call it greed) overwhelms their need to minimize loss potential.
Using a $40 stock as an example, if the CC writer understood that writing the Jun 45 call resulted in a position equivalent to selling the Jun 45 put (when it's five points ITM), he/she would be horrified. Yet, unaware of this equivalence, they write OTM calls month after month.
3) I am not aware of any academic studies, but Odean and Barber have written many papers about the investing habits of individual investors. If you write to one of them, you may get a reply (I did).
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Hello Mark:
I am awaiting your book, but I have read other authors, and I want to use a "Deep ITM" option to buy and control a stock, XYZ, a blue-chip company. This to control the stock at less cost than buying outright, while taking advantage of a near 100% delta relation between shares and option.
My intention is to sell a Covered Call against the shares, just above ATM, with the intent of assigning my shares (those for which I do not yet own, but hold an option) if the holder of my sold option exercises his option. I want to collect the difference in my option strike price and present price of the shares for my account, rather than just exercise my option to close the Call I wrote. Another goal is to own the right to buy my shares at a future time, at today's price, when I will have more cash on hand.
If my Covered Call is assigned, I am delighted. I will wait for another dip in the share price to buy another "DITM" option as above, as I want to own XYZ stock when the price is right.
For the short time I "pass-on" my assignment I would prefer not to have cash on hand.
I am sure this can be done, can you help me with the mechanics. Thanks-Joel***
Hello Joel,
Options for rookies is primarily an educational blog, so first let me correct some terminology for the benefit of other readers.
When you say: 'assigning my shares,' it should be: 'exercise my options.'
***
1) Good use of a DITM call.
3) But, if you want to collect any remaining time premium remaining in your call option, then you simply buy shares and sell your calls. Pay attention to just how much time premium remains and don't ignore the fact that you will have to pay two commissions when you buy shares and sell the call, rather than one exercise fee (not all brokers charge this fee).
Keep in mind that if you are assigned an exercise notice, it's most likely going to be at expiration (or very near), and it's virtually 100% guaranteed that there will be zero time premium in your deep in the money call to collect.
If that's the case, or if the premium is too little to justify any extra commissions, then simply exercise your call to offset the stock you sold when assigned.
4) You have the correct attitude. Being delighted when assigned is the winner's attitude.
***
The Mechanics
1) Enter an order to buy a call spread. The option you buy is (obviously) your DITM option and the one you sell is your slightly out of the money (what you refer to as 'above ATM') call.
Specify the debit for the spread. That means how much cash you are willing to pay. It's important to specify a debit because that makes the order a 'limit' order. DO NOT enter a market order. You can always (ok, at least 99% of the time) pay less for the spread than the price you see on your trader screen.
2) I assume the options both expire at the same time. If that's true, there is no problem.
If the option you buy expires later, that's also not a problem - but from your strategy description, I don't believe that would be advisable.
3) If you are NOT assigned an exercise notice, and the option you sold expires worthless, you must either sell your DITM option, or exercise it and become a stockholder.
There is another choice (buy the calendar spread, moving your long option out one month. If you do this, buy back the call you sold (at a very low price; $0.05) AND sell another covered call that expires in the same month as the new DITM call.
You cannot expect this strategy to work every time, and you will see the options expire worthless more often than you prefer to see that happen.
I want to mention, but assume you are aware, that this is a bullish strategy with a limited reward. The potential loss is much larger.
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